Rye wrote:The way I deal with faster than light is I assume that everything, irrespective of the speed or accelleration it's going through has a definitive point in space and time that's the universal moment of the present. If you froze the universe at one point in time and rearranged your location to anywhere else in it upon resumption, I don't really see what problems with causality that would engender.
What is "the universe at one point in time"? According to you, it's some set of events simultaneous to (Rye,right now); call it X. According to your neighbor, the set of events simultaneous to (Rye,right now) is some set of events Y. And if your neighbor runs away from you, X is not the same as Y. Simultaneity is relative, which is why what is instantaneous teleportation to you may be time travel to the past to others.
Rye wrote:I would've thought something like this: At any point in time from any observer, everything else must correspond to a specific time/space position relative to it, work out the average for everything in the universe and you have the "true" position of everything relative to everything else and have everything truly plottable.
However, for any two events A and B with spacelike separation, there is an inertial frame in which A precedes B and another inertial frame in which B precedes A. Unless there is already an absolute frame to which one can compare inertial frames and "scale" their contribution to this "average", there is no way that this can meaningfully come out to be anything but zero.
Rye wrote:... after all, there's all the confusing stuff with virtual particles, entanglement and the origin of the modern universe itself. Or there is the idea that relativity is not the whole story since on the tiniest scales, the physical universe is connected to the warp and chaos or whatever.
Such things are counterintuitive, but they do not carry information superluminally.
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skotos wrote:How does picking a common frame of reference in order to determine the times and locations of FTL events (say, the entry and exit into "hyperspace") violate relativity? We pick common frames of reference in order to do physics all the time. If I'm solving a mechanics problem on Earth, I pick the frame of reference in which the Earth is at rest.
The issue is not whether you can pick a reference frame in which you can make sense of the situation, but that you are now forbidden from picking certain ones. The relativistic motto is that all observers are equivalent (for STR, inertial; for GTR, all) in the sense that the laws of physics are the same for all--in other words, you could in principle do your mechanics problem in coordinates which treat the galactic center at rest, or some such. The situation described prior would have causality preserved in some reference frames but not others, so that it will not be proper to use the same laws of physics
skotos wrote:The one thing I can think of is that one can establish a cause and effect relationship between two events that are seperated by a spacelike interval, which is not possible under special relativity as we understand it today. So if this new possibility is considered a contradiction of relativity, then I concede the point.
In special relativity, any a signal is faster than light if and only if it causally connects two events with spacelike separation. In general relativity, this goes for "locally faster than light" (in STR, locally FTL is equivalent to FTL).
Xeriar wrote:Intergalactic dust experiences the most proper time because it is outside of the massive gravitational wells produced by galaxies and their dark matter halos.
That's certainly an important factor, but more directly to how this frame was defined: if the universe is isotropic in this frame, then "gravitational effects cancel out" by this symmetry. Our universe is only approximately uniform, but this uniformity is apparently rather impressive on the very large scale.
Xeriar wrote:This is significant - the sun's gravitational well 'slows' us far more than Earth's gravity does, to the tune of nearly 20 billionths compared to Earth's 1.3 billionths.
Not that I have any reason to dispute these figures, but I'm somewhat curious as to how they were calculated. If it was by comparing to an idealized observer at infinity assuming an asymptotically flat spacetime, this comes out to be
[1-(1-GM/(c²AU))^{1/2}]:[1-(1-Gm/(c²r))^{1/2}] ≅ [M/(2AU)]:[m/(2r)] ≅ 14:1
where M is the mass of the Sun, m that of earth, and AU and r are Earth's orbital and physical radii, and the nonlinearity of GTR was blithely ignored (that should be fine on this scale). The ratio is extremely close (14:1 vs. 15:1 = 20:1.3), although the numbers are a bit more off (4.9e-9 vs. 0.35e-9), so there's probably one more factor affecting both in the same manner. Was it the mass of the Milky Way or was the calculation simply done with a different method of comparison?