Why did China unite and Europe fail to?

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Re: Why did China unite and Europe fail to?

Post by Thanas »

Iracundus wrote:When the rebellion is aimed at the creation or re-creation of their own ethnic state, then yes it is a form of nationalism. It is acknowledgement of their ethnic identity with their nation. If you recall, the original point under contention was the supposed "similarity" of the Warring States and therefore why unity wasn't that big a deal. The cultural divisions among the Warring States were not as superficial as the other poster had claimed if the post-Qin revolts were aimed at re-creation of the old nationalities and states.
No, it is not. For there is nothing really ethnic about being a subject of "ruler A" during that time. That people try to claim past glories is also not something that is borne out of nationalism. For example, one can easily be a member of public grouping A without being born a member of public grouping A.
And as with any sufficiently ancient battle, you will not find purely physical evidence that would yield the body count or the participant count as much will have been lost to time. At some point reference to textual documents will be necessary. If you question all the texts as being unreliable, then nothing can be ascertained about the battle size at all.
Yes. Why should that be a problem unless you have some kind of agenda like "ZOMG BIGGEST BATTLE EVER?" History should try to deal with facts and concepts, not ancient or modern dick-measuring.
The general number of soldiers mobilized by Qin in its final state destroying campaigns was 1 million if you tally up the counts in the individual campaigns. Granted some of these might have been emergency short term levies that were then demobilized after the war as there is textual evidence of an emergency levy of all able bodied men over the age of 15 as reinforcements for Changping.
That number is less than impressive, really, considering the low tech base, even if you accept all those numbers at face value (which I do not).

Gutting an agrarian state that measured its population in the low millions is an idea of the scale. Whether the total casualty count was 450,000 or 440,000 is a bit immaterial to the final effect, which is what is relevant for practical considerations of the level of devastation suffered by Zhao. Even so it did put up some fight in the end and managed to scrape together an army of levies. No resort to any (possibly non-existent) mercenaries.
I shall await hard evidence of such a population reduction then.
I think you are still persistently underestimating the effectiveness of peasant levies, especially in the Warring States given the existence of the Qin crossbow which archeological evidence has shown was mass produced. In mass numbers the killing power of such a weapon outstripped armor technology of the period and could make the armed peasant more dangerous than one might think.
No, I do not underestimate anything. Peasant levies might very well have been worth it for Qin. That does not mean they were ever a good idea in Europe.
Not when you are talking a Bronze Age civilization.
Yes, it does. Maintaining chariots was easier than maintaining good cavalry for a myriad of reasons, one being that chariots are easier to produce and train for than good heavy cavalry.
A correction to my earlier point, chariots would have fit the role in the Spring & Autumn period preceding the Warring States, when the costs of war chariots meant they were raised and maintained only by nobles by the resources of their fief in a role analogous to the knight. When it was still the realm of nobles and their retainers doing the fighting on a small scale, a chariot force of 500 could constitute an "army" (as in the use of what is now the modern Chinese character for it). The role of the chariot fills the same niche sociologically, with the costs of war raised so that only a few could afford to fight in such a manner.
Again, just because chariots might be effective in a low-tech environment it does not mean that the use of them is "a good idea" or would have been a good idea in Europe.
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Re: Why did China unite and Europe fail to?

Post by Thanas »

Spoonist wrote:Here is the companion article to the book;
http://eastasia.huji.ac.il/segel/course ... 0guoji.pdf
The whole thing is a dig against eurocentrism. As such the specific selection of the periods is not to have two who compare well, it is to have two that fits the narrative of what the author is trying to sell the book on.

Here is a bit in the article about the mercenaries thingie which I find very strange reasoning.
First, mercenaries are often prohibitively expensive+
Second, reliance on military entrepreneurs makes it impossible for the state to centralize military command and to monopolize the means of coercion+
Third, mercenary troops tend to have serious discipline problems+
1-nope. Its not intrinsic to mercenaries to be expensive. Just like hiring consultants is not necessarily expensive. Instead its specialist mercenaries/consultants, or when market demand increases above availability.
There where lots of cheap mercenaries available to the roman empire for instance, many times it was cheaper to hire a local tribe to fight another local tribe than to go through the whole thing with your own troops
Then in lots of wars the crappy mercenaries was dirt cheap. Some literally could be bought with bread.
2-nope, lots of nations did both and effectively too. Does the author think that the modern US lacks power projection because it now hires more mercenaries than ever in its history?
3-nope, such generic statements doesn't work unless you are very specific. Lots of regular nation troops had some serious discipline problem as well. Especially levvied troops. As is evident in the very same period of china that the author is talking about. As well as lots of fameous mercenary companies had much much higher discipline and morale then their nationstate counterparts. I also think the author is misquoting the source's conclusions to more fit the narrative.

etc

Read the article - its trying to apply soft science on hard science to drive a narative. Works for sales and works for the narrative, doesn't work when looking at the claimed facts.

Thanks for that article Spoonist. Like I suspected, she clearly chose to talk about things she doesn't know a lot about. Her citations are also not very impressive.

Also, good use of the buzzword "self-strengthening reforms".


Man, these two passages just show how utterly inept that author is:
It is true that European rulers engaged in widespread subversion and even assassinations—as did the ancient Chinese. But Europeans rarely blatantly violated diplomatic norms without decent excuses, and they certainly never engaged in mass slaughter of defeated troops.....To build larger armies, the French court and the Habsburg house did not improve their extractive capacities to mobilize national armies; instead, they relied on military entrepreneurs to establish mercenary armies. Although it was possible to build numerically stronger armies this way, Machiavelli had already observed that mercenary troops, as with allied forces, exhibited “cowardice” and were “useless” in terms of fighting capability. Mercenary troops could not be trusted to engage in tactical
maneuvering, and quasi-independent military entrepreneurs could not be trusted to support one another Wars were therefore “limited in a very real sense—namely in the restricted ability of armed forces to carry out the grand strategic or political aims ordered by their rulers."
I mean....anybody with even an inkling of European military history would know that every single sentence of the the above is nonsense. Oh, and she does then use Machiavelli again as an authoritative source on cowardice and ineffectiveness of mercenary troops.

This is what passes for scholarship at ND? Not a credit to the university.
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Re: Why did China unite and Europe fail to?

Post by ray245 »

Stark wrote:I clearly hissed the horror, but I want to ask ray why he thinks you can compare the results of pressures, attitudes, culture, and needs with another while ignoring what produced them. If you 'compared' Byzantium in 1099 to the first year of the Tang Dynasty without saying 'because of trouble with their neighbours' or 'due to the internal political structure', what exactly are you comparing? Some kind of role playing game stats sheet? Some kind of imaginary snapshot of legions and stacks of rice and scrolls and trade routes? A fucking Rome TW map?
Well, I feel it would be helpful towards understanding the different factors that drive the different military policies of the two empires during the early 7th-8th century for example. At the same time, one can also find out in what way were the policies and organisation of the armies or bureaucracy similar and how did such a thing happen. The main reason I brought up Tang and Byzantium is because there is a interesting comparative work coming up by David Graff.
This is why I think 'comparative history' is only valuable if it encourages people to gain a deeper understanding than that, and that it thus requires involved scholarship. It's meaningless to try to perform some kind of scifi vs debate between things you barely understand, especially if you explicitly remove consideration of the reasons that 'snapshot' occurred and why.
I've never argued for comparative studies to be like some scifi-vs debates, nor am I in favour of using it to declare which empire/states is better than the other.
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Re: Why did China unite and Europe fail to?

Post by Iracundus »

Thanas wrote:No, it is not. For there is nothing really ethnic about being a subject of "ruler A" during that time. That people try to claim past glories is also not something that is borne out of nationalism. For example, one can easily be a member of public grouping A without being born a member of public grouping A.
There is a noted incident in Sima Qian's history of Qin documenting a debate in the court in 237 BC with one side advocating for expulsion of non-Qin foreigners from the state (on the basis of where they were born), which would have included members in the Qin bureaucracy including one of the high officials, Li Si, who was Chu born. His written petition arguing against it is documented as 諫逐客書. Clearly there was a sense among a significant enough segment of the court that simply by virtue of being born in another state, they were non-Qin and would forever be non-Qin, and this was independent of whoever was sitting on the throne. This is directly analogous to other past attempts by states elsewhere to expel foreign ethnicities. Wouldn't a movement to say get all non-Germans (defined purely by place of birth) expelled from Germany be viewed as evidence of German nationalism and xenophobia (Germany was picked purely at random)? I don't see how it can get much clearer than that in showing a sense of distinct ethnic identity, associated with the kingdom of one's birth, existed, i.e. nationalism. That this sense was subsequently extinguished by war and mass migration doesn't mean it was not real or present.

Yes. Why should that be a problem unless you have some kind of agenda like "ZOMG BIGGEST BATTLE EVER?" History should try to deal with facts and concepts, not ancient or modern dick-measuring.
The problem appears to be you doubting that it was a major battle at all, when even just by relative reported figures in Sima Qian it stood out as a massive battle for that period, even if you regard the absolute numbers as unreliable.

Hell go look up 白起豆腐 aka 白起肉 (Bai Qi tofu aka Bai Qi flesh), which is still a traditional food dish from that region, named after the Qin general that conducted the massacre so that he may be torn to bits by the diners. If the locals at some point hated Bai Qi enough to immortalize him in the local food culture, that gives a sense albeit circumstantial of how big an impact the battle had on the local area.
That number is less than impressive, really, considering the low tech base, even if you accept all those numbers at face value (which I do not).
And how many other Bronze Age state of that approximate period were mustering a million troops for its campaigns? Offhand I can think of Xerxes and Darius, if you accept certain numbers given for their forces. But they were troops of an empire already. Qin was still just one among 7 divided kingdoms. Again you seem to be dismissive of anything not Roman or Western.
I shall await hard evidence of such a population reduction then.
You seem to be setting the goalposts at an unprovable level in order to avoid acknowledging that it was a major battle or the effect on Zhao. You've rejected the textual evidence from Sima Qian, and presumably therefore all subsequent historical texts that might reference Sima Qian on this topic. You've rejected the finding of mass war dead dated to that time period at the site (but which in any case would never have been complete enough after over 2000 years to match any numerical claims by Sima Qian). We know Zhao official census records and that of all the defeated Warring States were officially destroyed by Qin, and any remaining copies did not appear to have survived the fall of Qin. You seem to have set up a situation where you will reject any evidence because it will never be good enough for you and the only one that perhaps might be is conveniently destroyed. Convenient to set up situations where nobody can ever prove otherwise.
Yes, it does. Maintaining chariots was easier than maintaining good cavalry for a myriad of reasons, one being that chariots are easier to produce and train for than good heavy cavalry.
What is the hard evidence for the maintenance costs of chariots relative to the productive capacity of the time? In an age where you didn't have heavy cavalry of the same heavy shock nature as later due to the lack of stirrups, the chariot was the functional equivalent. The point isn't that chariots are cheaper on an absolute scale but that relative to the means of the noble or state or whoever doing the funding, they filled the same niche.

Archeological evidence from the terracotta army shows the cavalry forces were missile armed, so for the same time period being talked about, there was no Warring State heavy cavalry, at least if you are thinking in the armored knight or cataphract sense. They filled a different role from that of the chariot.
Again, just because chariots might be effective in a low-tech environment it does not mean that the use of them is "a good idea" or would have been a good idea in Europe.
Which was never the point being discussed in the first place. The point was the chariot filled functionally and sociologically the same role during the Spring & Autumn period, as being a weapon of warfare that was restricted to the nobles due to the high costs of maintenance and production relative to the means of the time period.

When warfare became more than the province of a few skirmishing nobles, the cost benefit ratio shifted as attested to by the universal adoption of mass conscripted armies replacing the old feudal system of nobles supporting their own chariot forces.
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Re: Why did China unite and Europe fail to?

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Iracundus wrote: And how many other Bronze Age state of that approximate period were mustering a million troops for its campaigns? Offhand I can think of Xerxes and Darius, if you accept certain numbers given for their forces. But they were troops of an empire already. Qin was still just one among 7 divided kingdoms. Again you seem to be dismissive of anything not Roman or Western.
If the million men army under Cao Cao can be dismissed as propaganda, it makes it harder for anyone to believe a smaller bronze age state are capable to mustering the same amount of men.
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Re: Why did China unite and Europe fail to?

Post by Iracundus »

ray245 wrote:
Iracundus wrote: And how many other Bronze Age state of that approximate period were mustering a million troops for its campaigns? Offhand I can think of Xerxes and Darius, if you accept certain numbers given for their forces. But they were troops of an empire already. Qin was still just one among 7 divided kingdoms. Again you seem to be dismissive of anything not Roman or Western.
If the million men army under Cao Cao can be dismissed as propaganda, it makes it harder for anyone to believe a smaller bronze age state are capable to mustering the same amount of men.
Sure ancient army numbers were likely inaccurate and inflated. Herodotus gives Persian numbers that were vastly inflated. Sure the numbers given by Sima Qian could be argued to have been inflated, though one must remember the population figures. The official 2 AD Han dynasty census gave a figure of 57.7 million as point of comparison so some backward projection in time would be needed. If Rome could manage troop strengths over several hundred thousand, why not Qin? Especially if one brings into consideration that some of these numbers for the final series of wars were possibly short term extraordinary levies. But again the original point seems to have been lost in the drift: that the absolute figure of the numbers is not the main crux of the original point, but that the effects of Changping accomplished a devastation of Zhao that knocked it out of military contention.

The primary sources of the fall of Zhao show it fell afterwards because it unsuccessfully sought the aid of allies. It also fought purely defensively from fortifications, and even then eventually lost. The days when it could aggressively counterattack Qin (as Sima Qian documents it did at Changping even though it turned out to be a bad decision) were over. It certainly didn't attempt any more white knighting for weaker states against Qin, which was what precipitated Changping in the first place. Since there are no direct census or official Zhao records left, circumstantial evidence is all we have to work with, but those things do not suggest Zhao was in good shape at the end.
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Re: Why did China unite and Europe fail to?

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Iracundus wrote:There is a noted incident in Sima Qian's history of Qin documenting a debate in the court in 237 BC with one side advocating for expulsion of non-Qin foreigners from the state (on the basis of where they were born), which would have included members in the Qin bureaucracy including one of the high officials, Li Si, who was Chu born. His written petition arguing against it is documented as 諫逐客書. Clearly there was a sense among a significant enough segment of the court that simply by virtue of being born in another state, they were non-Qin and would forever be non-Qin, and this was independent of whoever was sitting on the throne. This is directly analogous to other past attempts by states elsewhere to expel foreign ethnicities.
And yet, it is no evidence of nationalism. See for example the expulsion of Greeks from Rome or the racism against Greeks in Rome - negative discrimination is no evidence of nationalism, it merely means that a particular group found it politically expedient to use a certain criteria to discriminate against another group.
The problem appears to be you doubting that it was a major battle at all, when even just by relative reported figures in Sima Qian it stood out as a massive battle for that period, even if you regard the absolute numbers as unreliable.
No, I don't think it was a minor battle at all. But the impact of a battle is not really dependant upon the number of combatants killed, it is a matter of relative impact of the loss.
And how many other Bronze Age state of that approximate period were mustering a million troops for its campaigns? Offhand I can think of Xerxes and Darius, if you accept certain numbers given for their forces. But they were troops of an empire already. Qin was still just one among 7 divided kingdoms. Again you seem to be dismissive of anything not Roman or Western.
Qin was just as much an empire as Persia or the Roman Republic was. It is not as if you get a magic force multiplier if you call yourself an empire. Being able to muster one owns forces is enough to qualify for the purpose of quantifying troops.


You seem to be setting the goalposts at an unprovable level in order to avoid acknowledging that it was a major battle or the effect on Zhao. You've rejected the textual evidence from Sima Qian, and presumably therefore all subsequent historical texts that might reference Sima Qian on this topic. You've rejected the finding of mass war dead dated to that time period at the site (but which in any case would never have been complete enough after over 2000 years to match any numerical claims by Sima Qian). We know Zhao official census records and that of all the defeated Warring States were officially destroyed by Qin, and any remaining copies did not appear to have survived the fall of Qin. You seem to have set up a situation where you will reject any evidence because it will never be good enough for you and the only one that perhaps might be is conveniently destroyed. Convenient to set up situations where nobody can ever prove otherwise.
What I am demanding is standard level of proof for something to be considered proven. Get off your high horse and stop ascribing some nefarious western agenda (tm).


What is the hard evidence for the maintenance costs of chariots relative to the productive capacity of the time?
Well, there are the numbers of chariots measured by Alexander, Ramses etc. But these figures are problematic in themselves. However, you were the one who claimed they are comparable to a knight, so by all means, present some proof.
In an age where you didn't have heavy cavalry of the same heavy shock nature as later due to the lack of stirrups, the chariot was the functional equivalent. The point isn't that chariots are cheaper on an absolute scale but that relative to the means of the noble or state or whoever doing the funding, they filled the same niche.
That is like saying a Quinquereme filled the same niche as a three-decker. And equally worthless.
Archeological evidence from the terracotta army shows the cavalry forces were missile armed, so for the same time period being talked about, there was no Warring State heavy cavalry, at least if you are thinking in the armored knight or cataphract sense. They filled a different role from that of the chariot.
Or the chinese never mastered proper armour technologies and/or suffered from their well-documented (relative) lack of iron.

When warfare became more than the province of a few skirmishing nobles, the cost benefit ratio shifted as attested to by the universal adoption of mass conscripted armies replacing the old feudal system of nobles supporting their own chariot forces.
No. Mass conscripted armies only become viable if you have a quick, easy and effective way to arm them.


BTW, are you conceding that the author is woefully unqualified to speak about the conditions in the medieval and modern age in the west?
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Re: Why did China unite and Europe fail to?

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Iracundus wrote:The primary sources of the fall of Zhao show it fell afterwards because it unsuccessfully sought the aid of allies. It also fought purely defensively from fortifications, and even then eventually lost. The days when it could aggressively counterattack Qin (as Sima Qian documents it did at Changping even though it turned out to be a bad decision) were over. It certainly didn't attempt any more white knighting for weaker states against Qin, which was what precipitated Changping in the first place. Since there are no direct census or official Zhao records left, circumstantial evidence is all we have to work with, but those things do not suggest Zhao was in good shape at the end.
I think what everyone wants to see is whether there are any archaeological reports documenting the massive depopulation of Zhao.
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Re: Why did China unite and Europe fail to?

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Thanas wrote:Really, there is nothing to be said here. I am debating against an ignoramus. Do you know the comparable cost to equip a single Knight with the most basic of equipment? It was the same cost as an entire village (not their production, no the entire village as is). Maintaining chariots is trivial in comparison.
Out of sheer curiosity, why? I would not expect a chariot to be that cheap to maintain. It probably doesn't need as much mass of metal as plate armor for a knight, but I would think most chariot warriors wore enough armor to close that gap somewhat.
Iracundus wrote:Sure ancient army numbers were likely inaccurate and inflated. Herodotus gives Persian numbers that were vastly inflated. Sure the numbers given by Sima Qian could be argued to have been inflated, though one must remember the population figures. The official 2 AD Han dynasty census gave a figure of 57.7 million as point of comparison so some backward projection in time would be needed. If Rome could manage troop strengths over several hundred thousand, why not Qin?
During what period of Qin's history was this, again? The Han census indicates that all of China, for that era's definition of "China," held 57 million people. This is roughly comparable to the size of the Roman empire during the time of Augustus.

Fielding several hundred thousand soldiers on a population base of fifty million is not that hard. Fielding a similar army on a population of five million is far harder, if not impossible, because agricultural surpluses in a classical society just aren't that impressive.
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Re: Why did China unite and Europe fail to?

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Asking 'if then why' is just admitting you have no understanding of the differences anyway. Even if populations are similar, social,economic and military structures can be different and even simple intent will limit forces. Is like when people read books describing some term (like 'entire army' say) that does not always mean the same thing and actually has lots of assumptions and context built into each example such that you can't just say 'oh, that was ALL THEIR SWORD DUDES' and compare in that way. As Thanas said a big part of the significance of 'army size' is the impact of loss, and some sources of manpower and economic systems can handle casualties better than others which obviously shapes how and when people are prepared to risk armies. Nobody wants to lose a generation of economic growth.
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Re: Why did China unite and Europe fail to?

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Agreed.

On the other hand, sheer size makes a difference. For example, professional all-volunteer armies have minimal social impact, compared to conscripting the civilian workforce. And if you're a big enough nation you can still field millions of men with such a system. To match that deployment, a smaller nation would have to take a lot more risks and accept more costs (as you allude to) by drafting many more of its able-bodied men to fight.

This is made even more serious when you start considering that just feeding hundreds of thousands of people not engaged in agriculture would be very hard for an ancient society of, say, five million people. No matter how you go about raising the manpower, it does no good if the food supplies aren't there.

Hence my question about the Qin, and its purpose: if Iracundus claims that Qin fielded a million armed men out of a population of five or six million he's being ridiculous. If he claims that Qin fielded a similar force out of a population of 30-40 million, it's more believable because at least they could feed them all.
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Re: Why did China unite and Europe fail to?

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Iracundus wrote: There is a noted incident in Sima Qian's history of Qin documenting a debate in the court in 237 BC with one side advocating for expulsion of non-Qin foreigners from the state (on the basis of where they were born), which would have included members in the Qin bureaucracy including one of the high officials, Li Si, who was Chu born. His written petition arguing against it is documented as 諫逐客書. Clearly there was a sense among a significant enough segment of the court that simply by virtue of being born in another state, they were non-Qin and would forever be non-Qin, and this was independent of whoever was sitting on the throne. This is directly analogous to other past attempts by states elsewhere to expel foreign ethnicities. Wouldn't a movement to say get all non-Germans (defined purely by place of birth) expelled from Germany be viewed as evidence of German nationalism and xenophobia (Germany was picked purely at random)? I don't see how it can get much clearer than that in showing a sense of distinct ethnic identity, associated with the kingdom of one's birth, existed, i.e. nationalism. That this sense was subsequently extinguished by war and mass migration doesn't mean it was not real or present.
More importantly, a commentary about the Spring Autumn analects, albeit compiled in later years indicate that the State of Yue were comprised of non 'Han' people, which were ethnically different, being from the barbarian tribes, conquered by the State of Wu.
Sima Qian entry about them being descended from the sage emperor Yu takes on a different context then.

Also, the propaganda attacks against Qin found in the Warring States commentary states that they invited barbarian tribes into the state, incorporating cavalry tactics and immigration of the nomads.

Similarly, we have a founding legend about how the 12 different tribes united together to form the first Chinese civilization, although legends compiled in later eras are historically iffy..

We can also say based on the movement of the Polynesian empire, its certain that the Chinese did displace the Polynesian people, although this event happened before the advent of Chinese civilization.

So...... multiple hints that there were various ethnic groups existing in China exists, this even before we talk about how the Han dynasty colonized the various parts of China with Han people.
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Re: Why did China unite and Europe fail to?

Post by PainRack »

Simon_Jester wrote:Hence my question about the Qin, and its purpose: if Iracundus claims that Qin fielded a million armed men out of a population of five or six million he's being ridiculous. If he claims that Qin fielded a similar force out of a population of 30-40 million, it's more believable because at least they could feed them all.
We know from the Qin Dynasty census that the whole of Ancient China numbered 30 million.

An earlier census states that the Qin State had 5 million people.
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Re: Why did China unite and Europe fail to?

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Simon_Jester wrote:
Thanas wrote:Really, there is nothing to be said here. I am debating against an ignoramus. Do you know the comparable cost to equip a single Knight with the most basic of equipment? It was the same cost as an entire village (not their production, no the entire village as is). Maintaining chariots is trivial in comparison.
Out of sheer curiosity, why? I would not expect a chariot to be that cheap to maintain. It probably doesn't need as much mass of metal as plate armor for a knight, but I would think most chariot warriors wore enough armor to close that gap somewhat.
Finding metal is not a problem and in Europe it was particularly easy to get metal - find a roman ruin or tomb, plunder it and you have metal. Or just rip the metal and steel elements straight out of roman buildings. There is a reason a lot of people up to the 20th century in some countries - like Greece - just looked for Roman ruins if they needed gold or other pieces of metals quickly.

No, the problem is that you need skill and expertise to make weapons for knights, That skill in weaponry making is the first ingredient which makes a knight so valuable.

The other is the horse. Heavy cavalry did not exist before the middle ages simply because horses back then were not tall enough. They were comparable in size to todays shetland ponies (not quite in body proportions but in size). If you armored rider and horse then you would get heavy cavalry which at best could trot - which is also the reason why heavy cavalry like the clibinarii were supposed to trot up to the enemy and then engage him in close combat after using ranged weapons. Other heavy cavalry of that age eschewed full armor in favor of having some more mobility etc.

This only changed with the arrival of the medieval warhorse and you need a thousand years of horse breeding to make a proper warhorse.

That is why medieval knights are that far above any other heavy cavalry which went before and why they - unlike their predecessors - were able to dominate a battlefield single-handedly.
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Re: Why did China unite and Europe fail to?

Post by Dr. Trainwreck »

Iracundus wrote:There is a noted incident in Sima Qian's history of Qin documenting a debate in the court in 237 BC with one side advocating for expulsion of non-Qin foreigners from the state (on the basis of where they were born), which would have included members in the Qin bureaucracy including one of the high officials, Li Si, who was Chu born. His written petition arguing against it is documented as 諫逐客書. Clearly there was a sense among a significant enough segment of the court that simply by virtue of being born in another state, they were non-Qin and would forever be non-Qin, and this was independent of whoever was sitting on the throne. This is directly analogous to other past attempts by states elsewhere to expel foreign ethnicities. Wouldn't a movement to say get all non-Germans (defined purely by place of birth) expelled from Germany be viewed as evidence of German nationalism and xenophobia (Germany was picked purely at random)? I don't see how it can get much clearer than that in showing a sense of distinct ethnic identity, associated with the kingdom of one's birth, existed, i.e. nationalism. That this sense was subsequently extinguished by war and mass migration doesn't mean it was not real or present.
Man... so knee jerk xenophobia and tribalism is now on the same standing as the discrete ideology that was expressed by the French Revolution, and "ah dun liek dem forrin immigrunts" is just as good as the principles behind the modern nation-state. I should say that this is ridiculous, but after seeing enough Greek chauvinists this is par for the course.
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Re: Why did China unite and Europe fail to?

Post by LaCroix »

Thanas wrote:The other is the horse. Heavy cavalry did not exist before the middle ages simply because horses back then were not tall enough. They were comparable in size to todays shetland ponies (not quite in body proportions but in size). If you armored rider and horse then you would get heavy cavalry which at best could trot - which is also the reason why heavy cavalry like the clibinarii were supposed to trot up to the enemy and then engage him in close combat after using ranged weapons. Other heavy cavalry of that age eschewed full armor in favor of having some more mobility etc.

This only changed with the arrival of the medieval warhorse and you need a thousand years of horse breeding to make a proper warhorse.

That is why medieval knights are that far above any other heavy cavalry which went before and why they - unlike their predecessors - were able to dominate a battlefield single-handedly.
Just a reminder, most of these "traditional" horse breeds (all these "Warmbloods" of roughly 16 hands, basically every horse you ever seen) we know are less than 500 years old, and are the products of wanting a unified cavalry on almost identical horses.

Back in the middle ages, you didn't really have breeds, you classified horses by their use, and then started lines with promising ones. A knight usually had two horses, one was a travel horse (called palfrey, or Zelter in old german), usually a gaited one, for easy and fast travel, so he could travel without enduring any pain, and only used the valuable destrier during combat - they weren't really comfortable. A destrier was about 15 to 16 hands tall (notice, this is measured to the base of the neck), which was quite massive if you remember that people were about the same size back then.

These horses were the rare one-per-year lucky hit when you bred horses, needed to have the right character and extensive training, which resulted in them being very expensive, you could get 10 good horses for the price of one destrier. The armor itself pales in comparison to that cost, the price of that horse was about as much as the cost of feeding the knight's whole household for a year, and enough money to build a nice house with courtyard. (No wonder it was very ungallantly to deliberately target the horse...) And feeding them would be about as costly as 4 or 5 people, if you only count the grain they eat per day, not counting the people you need to care for that horse (which usually had their own staff of attendants to look for it 24/7)

And now the kicker - you should have more than one of those, for they tend to get hurt and killed in battle.
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Re: Why did China unite and Europe fail to?

Post by PainRack »

Just as a sidenote, the Qin interaction with the nomads included trade, which presumably included horses and thus improved their cavalry that way. At least, it should have, given the Han later interaction with the Xiongniu and etc.

The search for qian li ma(a thousand league horse) was apparently so intense that it was worth recording as a story in the Spring and Autumn Annalects, about how a sage advised a prince to pay a high price for a dead horse, in the belief that this recognition of talent will push others to come forward with others.
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Re: Why did China unite and Europe fail to?

Post by Thanas »

LaCroix wrote:Just a reminder, most of these "traditional" horse breeds (all these "Warmbloods" of roughly 16 hands, basically every horse you ever seen) we know are less than 500 years old, and are the products of wanting a unified cavalry on almost identical horses.

Back in the middle ages, you didn't really have breeds, you classified horses by their use, and then started lines with promising ones.
Actually, we have several breeds being named, it is just that there was no strict classification against interbreeding etc.
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Re: Why did China unite and Europe fail to?

Post by TheNotoriousAMP »

Thanas wrote:
Simon_Jester wrote:
Thanas wrote:Really, there is nothing to be said here. I am debating against an ignoramus. Do you know the comparable cost to equip a single Knight with the most basic of equipment? It was the same cost as an entire village (not their production, no the entire village as is). Maintaining chariots is trivial in comparison.
Out of sheer curiosity, why? I would not expect a chariot to be that cheap to maintain. It probably doesn't need as much mass of metal as plate armor for a knight, but I would think most chariot warriors wore enough armor to close that gap somewhat.
No, the problem is that you need skill and expertise to make weapons for knights, That skill in weaponry making is the first ingredient which makes a knight so valuable.

That is why medieval knights are that far above any other heavy cavalry which went before and why they - unlike their predecessors - were able to dominate a battlefield single-handedly.
Neither of these are particularly true. Charioteers are easier to train, as they are fighting on a somewhat stable platform, which also means there horses need less training to boot. That's the big reason why they were developed earlier and were cheaper to maintain. Knights became a dominant form of military man because they combined several perfect traits. First and foremost, the time it took to train someone to be a knight, as well as his horse, means that you could create a class of elite military men whose only possible occupation was to fight. Secondly, the expense required meant that they were reliant on people higher up the totem pole to equip themselves and that kept them under control. Third, the fact that they were trained riders meant that they were well suited for the raiding warfare that was the staple of medieval combat. In short, the knight was "dominant" on the battlefield because he offered his employers excellent return on their investment. Its a lot like a law firm hiring a new lawyer and not an old one, they know that the new one does not have the contacts or resources to strike out on his own, so they know they basically own his soul and are more secure in their own position.

The knight itself as a military tool was actually not that great. If you read through medieval military history, the dominant weapon of war was the infantryman, the heavy cavalry remained on the wings as they always were. Whenever disciplined infantry and good cavalry met, the infantry almost always won. The difference maker was control over history by the knightly class, the desire to ensure the lower classes were not included in the power structure as well as the increased strategic, not tactical mobility of mounted men. In battle, a knight was usually more useful on foot and a knight on foot is just another heavy infantryman. Its only with the early modern period and the rise of true plate armor that the knight, in the form of the semi professional lancer, reaches his pinnacle of battlefield utility and even then this was temporary.
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Re: Why did China unite and Europe fail to?

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TheNotoriousAMP wrote:Neither of these are particularly true. Charioteers are easier to train, as they are fighting on a somewhat stable platform, which also means there horses need less training to boot. That's the big reason why they were developed earlier and were cheaper to maintain.
Wrong. The horse breeds that allowed heavy cavalry were not prevalent in the time of the chariot. It has everything to do with societal status and available means (as well as tactics which changed later on). It doesn't have anything to do with training. There simply was no way you could breed a horse that could do what the later warhorses could in the time of the chariot.

But chariots simply suck as heavy cavalry, which is why they disappeared very quickly after the first proto-warhorses appeared, even though they were still too small to allow a galloping charge.
Knights became a dominant form of military man because they combined several perfect traits. First and foremost, the time it took to train someone to be a knight, as well as his horse, means that you could create a class of elite military men whose only possible occupation was to fight. Secondly, the expense required meant that they were reliant on people higher up the totem pole to equip themselves and that kept them under control. Third, the fact that they were trained riders meant that they were well suited for the raiding warfare that was the staple of medieval combat.
Sources for this being the reason they became dominant and not their battlefield performance?
In short, the knight was "dominant" on the battlefield because he offered his employers excellent return on their investment. Its a lot like a law firm hiring a new lawyer and not an old one, they know that the new one does not have the contacts or resources to strike out on his own, so they know they basically own his soul and are more secure in their own position.
How do you reconcile this view with the clear fact that the knight was the best weapon of his time?
The knight itself as a military tool was actually not that great.
Bullshit.
If you read through medieval military history, the dominant weapon of war was the infantryman, the heavy cavalry remained on the wings as they always were.
This is oversimplifying. There are plenty of battles where knights (alone) defeated infantry and vice versa. The knights were not deployed on the wings per se, only if the tactical situation called for it. Heck, the battle of crecy for example had them stationed right in the centre.
Whenever disciplined infantry and good cavalry met, the infantry almost always won.
Again, oversimplifying. It depends on the time period as well as the specific battle. Both knights and infantry had their uses. Sometimes they won (for example, the knights of Henry IV cut down the very organized, very disciplined saxon infantry), sometimes they lost. This is true for all ages, even up until the age of pike and shot, where for example at Ravenna the heavy French cavalry cut up the spanish tercios.
The difference maker was control over history by the knightly class, the desire to ensure the lower classes were not included in the power structure as well as the increased strategic, not tactical mobility of mounted men.
Yes, I am sure Knights continued to be favored simply because it suited the chroniclers, not because they were an incredibly efficient weapon. I am sure the empires of the east were also in on this vast giant plot, despite having a totally different society. Yet these too quickly adopted knight formations after coming in contact with them and admired their tactical usefulness. Hmmm.....I wonder why that might be?
In battle, a knight was usually more useful on foot and a knight on foot is just another heavy infantryman. Its only with the early modern period and the rise of true plate armor that the knight, in the form of the semi professional lancer, reaches his pinnacle of battlefield utility and even then this was temporary.
No. From the day of Lechfeld up until the day of Pavia, mounted knights were excellent tactical forces. Were they the only instrument guaranteeing victory? Of course not. But were they relatively more important (compared to antiquity) than the infantry until the age of pike and shot and relatively more efficient? Of course.
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Re: Why did China unite and Europe fail to?

Post by Irbis »

Thanas wrote:No. From the day of Lechfeld up until the day of Pavia, mounted knights were excellent tactical forces. Were they the only instrument guaranteeing victory? Of course not. But were they relatively more important (compared to antiquity) than the infantry until the age of pike and shot and relatively more efficient? Of course.
"Until"? Knights (in the form of Polish Hussar cavalry, knights in all but name) were able to trample right through Swedish infantry formations, best foot army in the world at the time, using advanced Gustav additions to pike & shot tactics. Here, for example :wink:
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Re: Why did China unite and Europe fail to?

Post by Thanas »

Irbis wrote:
Thanas wrote:No. From the day of Lechfeld up until the day of Pavia, mounted knights were excellent tactical forces. Were they the only instrument guaranteeing victory? Of course not. But were they relatively more important (compared to antiquity) than the infantry until the age of pike and shot and relatively more efficient? Of course.
"Until"? Knights (in the form of Polish Hussar cavalry, knights in all but name) were able to trample right through Swedish infantry formations, best foot army in the world at the time, using advanced Gustav additions to pike & shot tactics. Here, for example :wink:
I wouldn't call that an example of Hussars being able to trample through enemy formations at will, note how this only happened because the Swedes had to disperse their formations due to enemy fire/their own cavalry running through them. I very much doubt the Hussars would have been able to charge through pike and shot infantry with intact formations.

But the same is true for any formation in the pike and shot era (and to a lesser extent of earlier spear formations as well). If the formation is intact, cavalry can do much less - if it is not, then you're up the creek.

EDIT: The wiki article is also quite hilarious in its logical mistakes, like citing low Polish casualties during the charge due to the horses protecting the riders (instead of the more logical reason of the disorganized swedes being unable to focus fire on them). The authors of this article probably never tried out what happens when a horse in full gallop is shot and the rider (wearing heavy armor) is thrown down. The results of that are not pretty.


Also, I wouldn't call the Hussaria knights. Their roots and actual role are a bit different.
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Re: Why did China unite and Europe fail to?

Post by Zinegata »

TheNotoriousAMP wrote:The knight itself as a military tool was actually not that great. If you read through medieval military history, the dominant weapon of war was the infantryman, the heavy cavalry remained on the wings as they always were. Whenever disciplined infantry and good cavalry met, the infantry almost always won. The difference maker was control over history by the knightly class, the desire to ensure the lower classes were not included in the power structure as well as the increased strategic, not tactical mobility of mounted men. In battle, a knight was usually more useful on foot and a knight on foot is just another heavy infantryman. Its only with the early modern period and the rise of true plate armor that the knight, in the form of the semi professional lancer, reaches his pinnacle of battlefield utility and even then this was temporary.
The Medieval Ages were not limited to the three big English victories battles of the Hundred Years War, which is really the genesis of claims like this. And a contributing factor to the French defeat in some of these battles was precisely because they dismounted large numbers of their knights without really considering the tactical effect of this - marching on foot in full plate very quicky tired out the knights (even in good weather) with calamitous results when contact was made.
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Re: Why did China unite and Europe fail to?

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Or you could just point out that the three big English victories do not mean much in the context of the usefulness of the knight. It meant that well-supported infantry, deployed behind prepared field fortifications could defeat cavalry. Well, no big surprise here.

And then one can easily point to the Battle of Patay in the same conflict, where the French cavalry broke through the english lines in a massed charge and, despite being outnumbered 4:1, massacred the English due to their superior knights.
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Re: Why did China unite and Europe fail to?

Post by Irbis »

Thanas wrote:I wouldn't call that an example of Hussars being able to trample through enemy formations at will, note how this only happened because the Swedes had to disperse their formations due to enemy fire/their own cavalry running through them. I very much doubt the Hussars would have been able to charge through pike and shot infantry with intact formations.
Well, there were several more impressive Hussar victories against Russian quasi pike-and-shot formations, but I did not include them as you could argue most of these were against badly disciplined levies that cavalry could break. I picked Swedes as these had no such issues, at least compared to any contemporary infantry.

Anyway, the main point was that claim that heavy cavalry wasn't decisive and infantry always reigned was dumb. Pike and shot or not, infantry is very soft and easy to break. Without training and discipline at least on par with say Roman Legion or early modern Line Infantry formations you might as well not bother against any competent cavalry.
EDIT: The wiki article is also quite hilarious in its logical mistakes, like citing low Polish casualties during the charge due to the horses protecting the riders (instead of the more logical reason of the disorganized swedes being unable to focus fire on them). The authors of this article probably never tried out what happens when a horse in full gallop is shot and the rider (wearing heavy armor) is thrown down. The results of that are not pretty.
I'd say it was less due to Swedes being unable to focus them, it was more due to the fact usual Hussar charge was very dispersed and only tightened ranks just before impact, precisely to avoid massed gun or bow volleys demolishing front ranks (as fallen horse is huge threat to everyone riding behind)
Also, I wouldn't call the Hussaria knights. Their roots and actual role are a bit different.
Polish Hussars, or Hungarian style (later copied in West) ones? Because yes, normal Hussars were light cavalry, Polish formation had much more in common looking at battlefield role and equipment with knights than them, IMHO.
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